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Pseudoexfoliative glaucoma – Free Trial Study Mode
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1 / 50
Category:
Microbial Keratitis
1. How can Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) be helpful in cases of microbial keratitis?
Correct answer: b) By determining the depth of corneal involvement
Explanation: Study guide – Microbial Keratitis
2 / 50
Category:
Neovascular Glaucoma
2. What are the risk factors associated with the development of aqueous misdirection after intraocular surgery?
Correct answer: b) Small axial length and hypermetropia
Explanation: Study guide – Neovascular Glaucoma
3 / 50
Category:
Neovascular Glaucoma
3. What is the primary mechanism of aqueous misdirection (malignant glaucoma) leading to secondary angle closure?
Correct answer: b) Forward movement of the lens iris diaphragm
Explanation: Study guide – Neovascular Glaucoma
4 / 50
Category:
Neovascular Glaucoma
4. What is the primary reason for the limited success of filtering procedures in treating ICE syndrome?
Correct answer: b) Progressive nature of the endothelial membrane formation
Explanation: Study guide – Neovascular Glaucoma
5 / 50
Category:
Neovascular Glaucoma
5. What is the characteristic presentation of Iridocorneal Endothelial (ICE) syndrome in terms of anterior segment structures?
Correct answer: b) Unilateral involvement with progressive endothelial membrane formation
Explanation: Study guide – Neovascular Glaucoma
6 / 50
Category:
Neovascular Glaucoma
6. Which systemic medication is crucial in managing neovascular glaucoma by addressing the underlying retinal ischemia?
Correct answer: c) Intravitreal bevacizumab
Explanation: Study guide – Neovascular Glaucoma
7 / 50
Category:
Neovascular Glaucoma
7. Which procedure is recommended for long-term control of intraocular pressure in neovascular glaucoma if medical therapy fails?
Correct answer: a) Trabeculectomy with antimetabolites
Explanation: Study guide – Neovascular Glaucoma
8 / 50
Category:
Congenital Glaucoma
8. When might long-tube drainage devices be indicated in the treatment of PCG?
Correct answer: b) If initial surgical options (goniotomy, trabeculotomy, filtration surgery) are unsuccessful
Explanation: Study guide – Congenital Glaucoma
9 / 50
Category:
Congenital Glaucoma
9. What role do medications play in the management of PCG?
Correct answer: b) Temporary measure while awaiting surgery
Explanation: Study guide – Congenital Glaucoma
10 / 50
Category:
Congenital Glaucoma
10. Which surgical options are commonly used as primary surgery for PCG?
Correct answer: b) Early goniotomy, trabeculotomy, filtration surgery
Explanation: Study guide – Congenital Glaucoma
11 / 50
Category:
Congenital Glaucoma
11. Which diagnostic sign is not typically seen immediately in PCG but develops over time?
Correct answer: c) Disc cupping
Explanation: Study guide – Congenital Glaucoma
12 / 50
Category:
Congenital Glaucoma
12. What is Haab's striae and how is it related to PCG?
Correct answer: b) Ruptures of Descemet's membrane
Explanation: Study guide – Congenital Glaucoma
13 / 50
Category:
Congenital Glaucoma
13. Which sign may raise suspicion of PCG in a child during the first weeks or year of life?
Correct answer: b) Larger corneal diameter
Explanation: Study guide – Congenital Glaucoma
14 / 50
Category:
Congenital Glaucoma
14. Which of the following is a typical early sign of Primary Congenital Glaucoma (PCG)?
Correct answer: b) Photophobia and tearing
Explanation: Study guide – Congenital Glaucoma
15 / 50
Category:
Acanthamoeba keratitis
15. What additional step should be taken after keratoplasty if there are signs of active Acanthamoeba infection?
Correct answer: b) Resume and continue medical therapy for Acanthamoeba
Explanation: Study guide – Acanthamoeba keratitis
16 / 50
Category:
Acanthamoeba keratitis
16. How often should patients with Acanthamoeba keratitis be followed up initially?
Correct answer: d) Daily or almost daily
Explanation: Study guide – Acanthamoeba keratitis
17 / 50
Category:
Acanthamoeba keratitis
17. Which of the following is part of adjunctive therapy for Acanthamoeba keratitis?
Correct answer: c) NSAIDs – topical or oral
Explanation: Study guide – Acanthamoeba keratitis
18 / 50
Category:
Acanthamoeba keratitis
18. In third-line therapy for Acanthamoeba keratitis, how are imidazoles typically administered?
Correct answer: a) Every hour during the initial period
Explanation: Study guide – Acanthamoeba keratitis
19 / 50
Category:
Acanthamoeba keratitis
19. What is the primary role of NSAIDs in the treatment of Acanthamoeba keratitis?
Correct answer: c) Anti-inflammatory action
Explanation: Study guide – Acanthamoeba keratitis
20 / 50
Category:
Acanthamoeba keratitis
20. Which medications are considered second-line therapy for Acanthamoeba keratitis?
Correct answer: a) PHMB 0.02%, Hexamidine 0.1%, Pentamidine 0.1%
Explanation: Study guide – Acanthamoeba keratitis
21 / 50
Category:
Acanthamoeba keratitis
21. What is the initial dosing regimen for first-line therapy in the treatment of Acanthamoeba keratitis?
Correct answer: c) Chlorhexidine 0.02% + Brolene 0.1% every hour for 2 to 3 days, then every 1 hour while awake for 3 days, then tapered to 4 times daily
Explanation: Study guide – Acanthamoeba keratitis
22 / 50
Category:
Marginal Keratitis
22. Which of the following conditions is associated with corneal hypoesthesia, making it distinct from marginal keratitis?
Correct answer: a) Herpetic stromal keratitis
Explanation: Study guide – Marginal Keratitis
23 / 50
Category:
Marginal Keratitis
23. What is a distinguishing feature of Mooren ulcer compared to marginal keratitis?
Correct answer: d) It does not spare the limbal margin
Explanation: Study guide – Marginal Keratitis
24 / 50
Category:
Marginal Keratitis
24. Which condition is most associated with collagen-vascular disorders can mimic marginal keratitis and is frequently associated with scleritis?
Correct answer: c) Peripheral ulcerative keratitis
Explanation: Study guide – Marginal Keratitis
25 / 50
Category:
Marginal Keratitis
25. How does herpetic stromal keratitis typically evolve compared to marginal keratitis?
Correct answer: b) Herpetic keratitis starts with an epithelial defect evolving into a stromal lesion, while marginal keratitis starts with stromal infiltrates that can lead to epithelial defects
Explanation: Study guide – Marginal Keratitis
26 / 50
Category:
Marginal Keratitis
26. What is a common characteristic of stromal infiltrates in marginal keratitis?
Correct answer: b) They have a clear margin of healthy cornea between them and the limbus
Explanation: Study guide – Marginal Keratitis
27 / 50
Category:
Marginal Keratitis
27. Where do stromal infiltrates typically form in marginal keratitis?
Correct answer: b) Periphery of the cornea
Explanation: Study guide – Marginal Keratitis
28 / 50
Category:
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus
28. Why are topical ointments such as erythromycin used in HZO?
Correct answer: b) To prevent secondary bacterial infection
Explanation: Study guide – Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus
29 / 50
Category:
Viral Conjunctivitis
29. What is the recommended dosing and tapering regimen for topical steroids in viral conjunctivitis with SEI?
Correct answer: a) Four times daily (QDS) for 1 month, then gradually reduced over 4 months
Explanation: Study guide – Viral Conjunctivitis
30 / 50
Category:
Viral Conjunctivitis
30. Which low-potency, non-penetrating steroid is preferred for treating persistent subepithelial infiltrates in viral conjunctivitis?
Correct answer: b) Fluorometholone
Explanation: Study guide – Viral Conjunctivitis
31 / 50
Category:
Viral Conjunctivitis
31. Which of the following justifies the use of topical steroids in viral conjunctivitis?
Correct answer: b) Persistent subepithelial infiltrates (SEI) lasting more than 6 weeks
Explanation: Study guide – Viral Conjunctivitis
32 / 50
Category:
Viral Conjunctivitis
32. Which topical medication can be used for severe itching in viral conjunctivitis?
Correct answer: b) Topical antihistamines (e.g., Olopatadine)
Explanation: Study guide – Viral Conjunctivitis
33 / 50
Category:
Viral Conjunctivitis
33. Which of the following is the primary treatment for viral conjunctivitis?
Correct answer: b) Artificial tears and lubricating ointments
Explanation: Study guide – Viral Conjunctivitis
34 / 50
Category:
Viral Conjunctivitis
34. Which of the following should be avoided in healthcare workers with viral conjunctivitis?
Correct answer: b) Continuing patient-facing roles during the first 2 weeks
Explanation: Study guide – Viral Conjunctivitis
35 / 50
Category:
Viral Conjunctivitis
35. Which of the following is a key differentiating sign of chlamydial conjunctivitis?
Correct answer: c) Chronic follicular conjunctivitis lasting weeks to months
Explanation: Study guide – Viral Conjunctivitis
36 / 50
Category:
Viral Conjunctivitis
36. Which of the following is a key distinguishing feature of bacterial conjunctivitis when compared to viral conjunctivitis?
Correct answer: c) Mucopurulent discharge
Explanation: Study guide – Viral Conjunctivitis
37 / 50
Category:
Uveitis
37. What is the first-line treatment for Syphilitic uveitis?
Correct answer: b) Penicillin
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
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Explanation: {explanation}
38 / 50
Category:
Uveitis
38. Which of the following is the recommended first-line treatment for non-infectious posterior uveitis associated with systemic autoimmune disease?
Correct answer: a) Corticosteroids
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
Correct!
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
39 / 50
Category:
Uveitis
39. Which clinical finding is most indicative of toxoplasmic chorioretinitis in posterior uveitis?
Correct answer: c) Focal necrotizing retinitis
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
Correct!
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
40 / 50
Category:
Uveitis
40. Which non-infectious systemic condition is commonly associated with posterior uveitis?
Correct answer: a) Sarcoidosis
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
Correct!
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
41 / 50
Category:
Uveitis
41. What is the first-line treatment for cytomegalovirus (CMV)-associated posterior uveitis in immunocompromised patients?
Correct answer: b) Ganciclovir
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
Correct!
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
42 / 50
Category:
Uveitis
42. Which of the following is a key diagnostic tool for determining posterior uveitis due to tuberculosis?
Correct answer: b) Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRA)
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
Correct!
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
43 / 50
Category:
Uveitis
43. Which immunosuppressive agent is commonly used for long-term control of uveitis?
Correct answer: c) Methotrexate
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
Correct!
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
44 / 50
Category:
Uveitis
44. What is the initial pharmacological therapy recommended for the first episode of acute anterior uveitis?
Correct answer: b) Topical steroids and cycloplegic agents
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
Correct!
Explanation: Study guide – Uveitis
45 / 50
Category:
Scleritis
45. Which medication is indicated for severe necrotizing scleritis with vision-threatening complications?
Correct answer: c) Immunosuppressants
Explanation: Study guide – Scleritis
46 / 50
Category:
Scleritis
46. What is the first-line treatment for non-necrotizing anterior scleritis?
Correct answer: b) NSAIDs
Explanation: Study guide – Scleritis
47 / 50
Category:
Scleritis
47. What is the role of tetracyclines in scleritis management?
Correct answer: c) Anti-inflammatory effect, especially in posterior scleritis
Explanation: Study guide – Scleritis
48 / 50
Category:
Scleritis
48. Which treatment is contraindicated in infectious scleritis?
Correct answer: d) Immunosuppressants
Explanation: Study guide – Scleritis
49 / 50
Category:
Scleritis
49. Which drug is most often prescribed as a first-line treatment for posterior scleritis?
Correct answer: c) Oral corticosteroids
Explanation: Study guide – Scleritis
50 / 50
Category:
Scleritis
50. Which type of scleritis poses a higher risk of visual loss due to the extent of inflammation and involvement of other ocular structures?
Correct answer: d) Posterior scleritis
Explanation: Study guide – Scleritis
Your score is
The average score is 6%